Chapter 1Management 1. Management is a universal talk of every work of life. a. True b. False 2. Management is an art of getting things done through and with the people in formally organized group. a. Koontaz and O’ Donnell b. Koontaz 3. Organized efforts are essential for the success of any............................... A. Enterprise. B. Division C. Activities D. Cooperation 4. Which of the following definitions apply to the cost of quality? a. Left over product b. Total cost of all project efforts c. Customer satisfaction d. Redoing entire project 5. Which of these terms apply to identifying quality standards and how to satisfy them? a. Quality projections b. Quality management c. Quality planning d. Quality overview 6. Which of the processes includes all activities of the performing organization that determines policies and responsibilities of a project? a. Performance quality control b. Project quality management c. Performance plan management d. Quality control management 7. Which process does QA provide and umbrella for? a. Continuous process improvement b. Quality assurance c. Project management plan d. Quality baseline 8. Jensen and Meckling showed that .................can assure themselves that they ...................... will make optimal decisions only if appropriate incentives are given and only if they ................are monitored. a. Principals; agents; agents
b. Agents; principals; principals c. Principals; agents; principals d. Agents; principals; agents 9………….. is concerned with the maximization of a firm's earnings after taxes. a. Shareholder wealth maximization b. Profit maximization c. Stakeholder maximization d. EPS maximization 10. What is the most appropriate goal of the firm? a. Shareholder wealth maximization. b. Profit maximization. c. Stakeholder maximization. d. EPS maximization. 11. Which of the following statements is correct regarding profit maximization as the primary goal of the firm? a. Profit maximization considers the firm's risk level. b. Profit maximization will not lead to increasing short-term profits at the expense of lowering expected future profits. c. Profit maximization does consider the impact on individual shareholder's EPS. d. Profit maximization is concerned more with maximizing net income than the stock price. 12. ................ is concerned with the branch of economics relating the behavior of principals and their agents. a. Financial management b. Profit maximization c. Agency theory d. Social responsibility 13.A concept that implies that the firm should consider issues such as protecting the consumer, paying fair wages, maintaining fair hiring practices, supporting education, and considering environmental issues. a. Financial management b. Profit maximization c. Agency theory d. Social responsibility 14. Which of the following is not normally a responsibility of the treasurer of the modern corporation but rather the controller? a. Budgets and forecasts b. Asset management c. Investment management d. Financing management
15. The ................decision involves determining the appropriate make-up of the right-hand side of the balance sheet. a. asset management b. financing c. investment d. capital budgeting 16. To whom does the Treasurer most likely report? a. Chief Financial Officer. b. Vice President of Operations. c. Chief Executive Officer. d. Board of Directors. 17. In Custodial Approach, the employees are supposed to follow the orders of their boss. a. TRUE b. FALSE 18. The level of management will depend upon the...................... a. Size, technology process, quantity of production and nature of organization, b. Nature of organization c. Quantity of production d. Size 19. Lower Level Management is also known as...................... a. first line management b. second line management c. Third line management d. Fourth line management 20. Top management is ultimately responsible for the success or failure of the organization, persons inside and outside of the organization closely scrutinizes performance. a. Top Managers b. Middle Managers c. First-Line Managers d. None of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a)
2.(a)
3.(a)
4.(b)
5.(c)
6. (b)
7.(a)
8.(a)
9.(b)
10.(a)
11. (d)
12.(c)
13.(d)
14.(a)
15.(b)
16. (a)
17.(b)
18.(a)
19.(a)
20.(a)
Chapter-2: Planning Self Assessment Questions 1. Identify the best definition of planning. a. The core activity of planners and planning departments. b. Setting an organization’s objectives and the means of reaching them. c.
An integrated process, in which plans are formulated, carried out and controlled.
d. Devising ways of achieving the objectives of an organization. 2. Which of these statements best summarizes the meanings of management? a. Only people in formal organizations act as managers b. Only a few experienced people in an organization are managers c.
Management is both a general human activity and a specialized occupation
d. Management is a job conducted by those with special training 3. The head of a division in a company who is responsible for the production, marketing and finance of this division and for generally ensuring its profitability is known as what type of manager? a. First-line manager b. Functional manager c.
Supervisor
d. General manager 4. A staff manager is someone who performs which of these functions? a. Is responsible for recruiting and selecting new staff b. Manages the staff of the organization c.
Deals with customer complaints
d. Is in charge of support functions such as finance, personnel or legal matters 5. A supervisor in a car production plant is an example of what kind of manager? a. Support manager b. Middle manager c.
Top manager
d. First-line manager 6. The function of arranging the work to be done and assigning tasks, authority and resources to people so that they can work to support the purposes of the organization is known as:
a. Planning b. Controlling c.
Leading
d. Organizing 7. When a marketing manager tells a subordinate that she did an excellent job when she made a presentation to senior management, what function is that manager performing? a. Organizing b. Leading c.
Controlling
d. Planning 8. Rosemary Stewart studied the pattern of managers' work. Which of these statements best represents the main conclusion of her research? a. Most managers spent a lot of time thinking and carefully analyzing problems b. Most managers spent a lot of time working alone c.
Managers typically work in a fragmented way, with many interruptions
d. There was little variation between managers in their working patterns 9. According to Mintzberg, all of the following are examples of the interpersonal roles of a manager, except: a. Leading b. Acting as a liaison c.
Acting as a symbol
d. Negotiating 10. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is an example of the decisional roles which a manager plays? a. Monitoring progress b. Acting as a spokesperson for the organization c.
Leading
d. Allocating some of the resources of the organization 11. Which of these statements best describes the idea of the context within which managers work? a. It represents factors both inside and outside the organization which influence the manager, and which the manager can also try to influence b. It is outside the organization, and therefore beyond the manager's control c.
Managers can easily act without referring to vague external things like the context
d. The context determines what the manager can do 12. We identify three levels of planning. What are they? a. Strategic, administrative and functional b. Top, middle and bottom c.
Operational, intermediate and strategic
d. Headquarters, divisional and local 13. What is the planning horizon? a. The time period within which uncertainty is very low. b. The maximum time for which managers can make plans. c.
The time ahead for which there is no information.
d. The time between making a plan and putting it into effect.
14. We identified several internal benefits of objectives, goals and a sense of mission. Which is not included? a. Basis of control b. Motivation c.
Basis of plans and decisions
d. Basis to resolve disputes 15. A good objective should clarify the desired result; i) enable achievement to be measured; and iii) need not specify a time scale. Which of these statements is true? a.
(ii) only
b. (ii) and (iii) c.
(iii) only
d. and (ii) 16. What is measurement ship? a. Trying to agree low objectives so as to look good later b. Surveying by naval architects. c.
Concentrating on measurable targets at the expense of others
d. Collecting too much performance data 17. What three problems commonly hindering successful planning did we identify? a. Lack of planning expertise; little top management support; misuse of planning specialists.
b. Conflict among objectives; impossibility of measuring outcomes; confusion between means and ends. c.
Procedures unsuited to change; negative organizational culture; poor interpersonal relationships.
d. An oversized planning department; poor co-operation between managers and planners; managers with little time to gather information. 18. What is the more formal term for what is known as 'Plan B'? a. A contingency plan b. A convergence plan c.
A catastrophe plan
d. A circumstantial plan 19. Good crisis management involves immediately decentralizing control to a number of welltrained teams. They concentrate on speedy resolution of the crisis. a. True b. False 20. Planning is an intellectual process, the conscious determination of courses of action, the basing of decisions on purpose, acts and considered estimates. a. True b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b)
2.(c)
3.(d)
4.(d)
5.(d)
6. (d)
7.(b)
8.(c)
9.(d)
10.(d)
11. (a)
12.(c)
13.(d)
14.(d)
15.(d)
16. (a)
17.(a)
18.(b)
19.(b)
20.(a)
Chapter-3: Organizing Self Assessment Questions 1. Which approach recognizes that there is no optimal organizational design? a. Contingency b. Boundless organizations c.
Flexible organizations
d. Virtual organizations 2. According to Burns and Stalker, which of the following is a feature of organic organizations? a. A specific hierarchical structure b. Prestige drawn from personal contribution c.
Emphasis on vertical communication channels
d. Knowledge requirement based on job 3. How did Lawrence and Lorsch refer to problems of trying to cope with varied environmental demands from the same department or the same demands from different departments? a. Integration failure b. Differentiation errors c.
Insufficient collaboration
d. Cognitive and emotional conflict
4. Which key skill was not mentioned by Kanter as needed by managers of innovative organizations? a. Communicating b. Team leading c.
Political
d. Coping 5. Which of the following is not true of span of control? a. The technical content of jobs has little effect on the required span of control of supervisors. b. High spans of control were found in supervision of line production. c.
It is the number of subordinates who report directly to a supervisor
d. The average span of control affects the number of managers. 6. How did Woodward come to suggest a normative theory about production organization?
a. Because different groups of firms had different organizational characteristics. b. Because those with leaner, shorter hierarchies performed best. c.
Because the best-performing firms in each technological group had organizational characteristics that were similar to each other.
d. Because it became clear that firms should adapt their organization to match process technology. 7. Structure is the pattern of relationships among positions in the organization and among members of the organization. Which of the following does structure make possible? a. The planning, organizing, directing and controlling of the activities of the organization. b. The application of the process of management. c.
The creation of a framework of order and command.
d. All of the above. 8. Which of the following functions may be described as 'task' functions?
a. Production. b. Quality control. c.
Personnel.
d. All of the above. 9. Which of the following might be classified as functions of the ‘staff organization’ as opposed to functions of the ‘line organization? a. Computer support services. b. Public relations. c.
Personnel.
d. All of the above. 10. Which three of the following terms best describe the three levels in a hierarchical structure? a. Missionary level. b. Co-ordination level, Objective level. c.
Technical level, Community level.
d. Managerial level, Community level, Technical level. 11. Organizational structure is made up of key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements? a. co-ordination b. chain of command
c.
decentralization
d. centralization 12. When jobs are grouped together based on a particular type of customer, this is known as: a. centralization. b. departmentalization. c.
work specialization.
d. job structuring. 13. Centralization refers to: a. the decision-making process. b. team decision-making. c.
the geographic dispersion of an organization.
d. the degree to which decision-making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.
14. In an organization that has high centralization: a. all top-level officials are located within the same geographic area. b. problems can be quickly and efficiently solved. c.
decision discretion is widely dispersed throughout the organization.
d. top managers make all the decisions-lower-level managers merely carry out directions.
15. The degree to which jobs within an organization are standardized is referred to as: a. centralization. b. job variation. c.
job classification.
d. formalization.
16. In a highly formalized organization, job behaviors are relatively: a. programmed. b. non-existent. c.
nonprogramed.
d. discretionary.
17. Employee discretion is inversely related to: a. complexity. b. standardization. c.
technology.
d. centralization. 18. Which of the following structures is characterized by centralization, high formalization, extensive departmentalization, and a limited information network? a. mechanistic model b. organic model c.
job structure model
d. job satisfaction model 19. If there is low formalization, a comprehensive information network and high participation in decision-making, one would expect: a. a typical government organization. b. an organic structure. c.
a stable structure.
d. a bureaucracy.
20. Which of the following is characterized by wide spans of control, little formalization, a low degree of departmentalization, and authority centralized in a single person? a. bureaucracy b. simple structure c.
matrix organization
d. team structure
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a)
2.(b)
3.(b)
4.(a)
5.(a)
6. (c)
7.(d)
8.(a)
9.(d)
10.(d)
11. (a)
12.(c)
13.(d)
14.(d)
15.(d)
16. (a)
17.(b)
18.(a)
19.(a)
20.(a)
Chapter 4 Leading as a Function of Management 1. A firm's strengths that cannot be easily matched or imitated by competitors are called a. b. c. d.
external opportunities. distinctive competencies. special properties. competitive ventures.
2. Within a particular organizations................. is where the strategic management process largely takes place. a. b. c. d.
rules and guidelines culture industry competitive environment
3. The five functions of management are planning, organizing, _________, staffing, and controlling. a. b. c. d.
rewarding communicating implementing motivating
4. Shorthand words used to capture a vision or to reinforce old or new values in a firm's culture are called a. b. c. d.
metaphors. sagas. rituals. symbols.
5. ....................ratios measure how effectively a firm is using its resources. a. b. c. d.
Liquidity Activity Growth Leverage
6. The internal resource categories used in the resource-based approach are physical resources, human resources, and a. b. c. d.
financial resources. natural resources. technological resources. organizational resources.
7. Americans place an exceptionally high priority on.............. Where as many foreigners place more worth on.............. a. b. c. d.
time; relationships relationships; time silence; time silence; relationships
8. Staffing involves all of these activities except a. b. c. d.
recruiting. managing union relations. customer analysis. training and developing.
9. Which of the following ties all business functions together and provides the basis for all managerial decisions? a. b. c. d.
management marketing information technology
10. All of the following are the functions of production management except a. b. c. d.
CAD/CAM. workforce. quality. process.
11. Why is it important to understand the organizational context in thinking about the management of strategic change?
a. A Because there is no one right formula for managing strategic change. It will need to differ according to the context of the organization. b. B Because it is important to analyze the organizational environment to develop strategies. c. C Because understanding the timescale of change is important. d. D Because understanding the managerial and personal capabilities to manage change in the organization is important.
12. Why might a force field analysis be useful in thinking about strategic change? a. A force field analysis helps to identify the blockages to change. b. A force field analysis helps to identify forces which might facilitate change. c. A force field analysis identifies those in the organizations with power to make change happen. d. A force field analysis provides a way of identifying forces for and against change in the organization. 13. In terms of types of change, what is meant by “,evolutionary”,? a. b. c. d.
Incremental change within the existing paradigm. “,Big Bang”, change within the existing paradigm. Incremental change outside the existing paradigm. Big bang change outside the existing paradigm
14. In circumstances of incremental change, strategic change is likely to be more successful if: a. b. c. d.
It is imposed. It is owned by the senior manager. It is internalized and owned by those who will implement it. It is facilitated by management consultants.
15. Managing the unfreezing change process can involve: a. b. c. d.
An emphasis on external problems or threats. Signaling the need for change. Making internal changes such as adjusting management. All of the above.
16. There are different styles of managing strategic change. Which of the following are the potential benefits of "direction" as a change style?
a. b. c. d.
Overcoming lack of information or misinformation. Increasing ownership of a decision or process. Maintaining control over the change process whilst also involving people in it. Clarity and speed.
17. The style of managing change described as intervention is characterized by: a. Change agent retains co-ordination and control but delegates elements of the change program. b. Use of authority to set the direction and means of change. c. Explicit use of power through edict. d. Involvement in setting the strategy change agenda and resolving strategic issues by groups or task forces.
18. Farkas and WetlauferWetlaufer seem to support the importance of context for successful strategic leadership. Taking this point of view which of the following best characterizes the most successful leaders as change agents? a. Those with an approach to leadership which emphasizes continual change in their organization. b. with an approach to leadership emphasizing measures of control in implementing change. c. Those with an approach to leadership emphasizing the development of people. d. Those with an ability to tailor their strategic leadership approach to the context of change.
19. Why are middle managers important in the strategic change process? a. Because middle managers are responsible for implementing plans determined at the top. b. Because middle managers interpret and adjust strategy as events unfold in the organization. c. Middle managers are a bridge between senior executives and lower levels in the organization and can therefore help change occur and advise top management about change. d. All of the above.
20. A successful change agent will: a. Be sensitive to the external and organizational contexts of change. b. Understand the overall required strategy.
c. Apply an appropriate style of managing change. d. All of the above. Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b)
2.(b)
3.(d)
4.(a)
5.(b)
6. (d)
7.(a)
8.(c)
9.(c)
10.(a)
11. (a)
12.(d)
13.(c)
14.(c)
15.(d)
16. (d)
17.(a)
18.(d)
19.(d)
20.(d)
Chapter-5 Controlling 1. Information must be collected, routed, and evaluated quickly if action is to be taken in time to produce improvements. a. b. c. d.
Accurate Timely Objective and Comprehensible None of these
2. Assembly-line technology is changing dramatically as organizations ………………….. a. b. c. d.
develop new products for the market replace human labor with robots replace old manually controlled machines with newer machines find new markets for their products
3. Controls must have flexibility built into them so that the organizations can react quickly to overcome adverse changes or to take advantage of new opportunities. a. b. c. d.
Accurate Timely Flexible None of these
4. Standards expressed in general terms should be avoided. Standards need to be flexible in order to adapt to changing conditions. a. True b. False
5. Which of the following is not an internal force of change? a. b. c. d.
technology strategy workforce employee attitudes
6. Market control assumes……….. a) prices and competition. b) the existence of a legitimate hierarchy of authority. c) norms and values to which organizational members conform.
d) Prices and competition, the existence of a legitimate hierarchy of authority, and norms and values to which organizational members conform.
7. For an organization to effectively exercise clan control it must have: a) b) c) d)
prices and competition. rules and hierarchy of authority. norms and values to which organizational members conform. Prices and competition, rules and hierarchy of authority, and norms and values to which organizational members conform.
8. The feminist perspective contributed which of the following dimensions of power that has previously not been considered by organization theorists? a) b) c) d)
Domination/submission Autonomy/dependence Oppressors/oppressed Masculine/feminine
9. In the Walton and Dutton model, what is the least likely single explanation for any given instance of interpersonal conflict in an organization? a) b) c) d)
Individual differences Common resources Communication obstacles Goal incompatibility
10. Cybernetic control systems help organizations realize their strategies by aligning: a) b) c) d)
behavioral and output measures. strategies, goals and actions. culture with social structure. the interests of managers with those of owners (shareholders).
11. Corrective action should be taken without wasting of time so that the normal position can be restored quickly. a. True b. False
12. According to agency theory, organizations achieve high levels of performance by aligning….. a) b) c) d)
behavioral and output measures. strategies, goals and actions. culture with social structure. the interests of managers with those of owners (shareholders).
13. An organization's process strategy a) b) c) d)
will have long-run impact on efficiency and production is the same as its transformation strategy must meet various constraints, including cost all of these
14. A job shop is an example of a(n) a. b. c. d.
repetitive process continuous process line process intermittent process
15. Three types of process strategies are…………………. a. b. c. d.
goods, services, and hybrids manual, automated, and service process focus, repetitive focus, and product focus modular, continuous, and technological
16. Which of the following products is likely to be assembled on a repetitive process line? a. b. c. d.
automobiles dishwashers television sets all of these
17. Concurrent controls monitor ongoing employee activity to ensure consistency with quality standards. a. True b. False 18. Control system should be flexible so that it remains workable in the case of changed plans, unforeseen circumstances or failures.
a. b. c. d.
Flexible Economical Motivating None of these
19. Financial statements provide management with information to monitor financial resources and activities. a. True b. False 20. Managers develop each new budget by justifying the projected allocation against its contribution to departmental or organizational goals. a. Flexible budgeting b. Top-down budgeting c. Zero-based budgeting d. None of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b)
2.(b)
3.(c)
4.(a)
5.(a)
6. (a)
7.(c)
8. (d)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11.(a)
12.(d)
13.(d)
14.(d)
15. (c)
16. (d)
17. (a)
18. (b)
19. (a)
20. (c)
Chapter-6: Group dynamics Self Assessment Questions 1. Which is not related to a large group? a. Freedom to operate more limited b. Faster decision process c.
Expanded know-how
d. Quality of decisions facilitated 2. Informal groups form naturally out of interactions among individuals over time.
a. True
b. False
3. The role negotiation process involves group discussions of each member’s contributions to the group.
a. True
b. False
4. A group that is formed by organizational leaders for the purpose of performing tasks that are essential to organizational functioning is called: a. Interest Group b. Task Group c.
None of the above
d. Functional Group
5. Task groups are formed by organizational leaders for the purpose of performing tasks that are essential to organizational functioning.
a. True
b. False
6. Which is not listed as a sub-role of Relations-Oriented Roles?
a. Encouragers b. Initiators c.
Gatekeepers
d. Followers 7. Which is not listed as a stage in group development?
a. Forming b. Role negotiation c.
Storming
d. Total Integration 8. A mature group has which of the following characteristics?
a. Group Cohesion b. Group Think c.
Status Structure
d. Both a and c 9. Which type of work team is made up of employees from different departments and has authority to implement their own recommendations?
a. Self-managed teams b. Problem-solving team c.
Project teams
d. None of the above 10. Group effectiveness being influenced by the nature of the problem to be solved is an example of:
a. Leadership b. Task complexity c.
Physical setting
d. Geographical location
11. Which is not an example of an environmental factor that influences group effectiveness? a. Resources b. Social loafing c.
Reward systems
d. None of the above 12. The extent to which leadership of the team is shared by all members and not having dependence on a single strong leader in a team is included in which dimension of conversational space: a. Convergent b. Divergent c.
Openness
d. Shared Leadership 13. Which is not listed as a characteristic of groups? a. Size and composition b. Group roles c.
Group norms
d. None of the above
14. The team-role which is most likely closely associated with enthusiasm, developing contacts and exploring opportunities is: a. team worker. b. monitor-evaluator. c.
resource investigator.
d. completer-finisher.
15. The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination and creativity but may show disregard for practical details is: a. plant. b. specialist. c.
team worker.
d. shaper.
16. Reasons for the formation of groups include: a. the provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behavior. b. the provision of protection for its membership. c.
the performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through combined efforts of individuals working together.
d. all of the above
17. Virtual teams are characterized by: a. individuals from different work areas who come together to accomplish a task. b. use of computer technology to communicate with individuals at different worksites. c.
groups of employees who take on the added responsibilities of their former managers.
d. employees who meet regularly to take corrective actions to problems being experienced.
18. The challenge of creating teams is less demanding for management when teams are introduced where employees have strong _________ values. a. collectivist b. pluralistic c.
competitive
d. individualistic 19. When designing reward systems for teams, it is best to encourage cooperative efforts rather than ____________ ones. a. collectivist b. individualistic c.
pluralistic
d. competitive 20. A role can be define as the activities and behaviors expected of a person holding a particular position within a group. a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b)
2.(a)
3.(a)
4.(d)
5.(b)
6. (b)
7.(b)
8.(d)
9.(c)
10.(b)
11. (d)
12.(d)
13.(d)
14.(c)
15.(a)
16. (d)
17.(b)
18.(a)
19.(d)
20.(a)
Chapter.7 Comparative Management Styles and Approaches 1. According to Patching .................. is organization development. a. Business strategy b. Participative management c.
Strategic thinking
d. Management development
2. A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an organisation, often called intervention strategies, these include: a. T-groups b. grid training c.
team building
d. all of the above
3. A definition of organizational culture is that it is “the collection of ................ and attitudes that constitute a pervasive context for everything we think and do in an organization”. a. Traditions, values, policies, beliefs b. Policies, practices, behaviors c.
Traditions, values
d. Values, styles, processes, activities
4. Schein suggested three levels of culture in order from shallowest to deepest. In this order, they are: a. History, values, activities b. History, artefacts, beliefs c.
Artefacts,s values, assumptions
d. Assumptions, artefacts, values
5. Harrison and Handy describe a project oriented organization which is structured like a matrix and based on expert power as a................ culture.
a. Task b. Power c.
Person
d. Role
6. According to Deal and Kennedy, an organization of individualists who take high risks and receive quick feedback, and where internal competition and conflict are normal, the type of culture can be described as: a. tough-guy, macho culture b. work-hard/play-hard culture c.
process culture
d. bet-your-company culture
7. The pervasive nature of culture means that it will significantly affect: a. motivation and job satisfaction b. decision-making c.
group behavior
d. all three of these
8. The Peters and Waterman study revealed that there was a particular factor that led to these organizations effectiveness. What was that factor? a. Dominance and coherence of culture b. Being a large multinational organization c.
Having a clear and rigidly defined organizational structure
d. Being decentralized and organic
9. Organizational climate is based on the ..................... of members towards the organization. a. perceptions b. loyalty c.
commitment
d. none of the above
10. Galunic and Weeks suggest that with the demise of WHAT, companies need other strategies to encourage commitment? a. Job security b. Promotion opportunities c.
Career paths
d. Pension plans
11. Resistance to change can be caused by: a. Inconvenience b. Habit c.
Selective perception
d. All three of the above
12. It is Cunningham’s belief that, despite the popular myth to the contrary, people generally a. Prefer stability b. Like being controlled c.
Dislike change
d. Love change
13. Which of the following is NOT one of Kotter and Cohen’s series of steps for successful management of large-scale change? a. Empowering action b. Producing short-term wins c.
Unfreezing Creating visions
d. All three of the above
14. Emotions which can cause a negative attitude and resistance to change include: a. Over-excitement b. Frustration c.
Both of these
d. Neither of these
15. According to Hooper and Potter’s study of 25 chief executives, which of the following were crucial to the successful management of organizational change? a. Setting a good personal example b. Effective communication c.
Self-pacing
d. All three of the above
16. It is necessary to understand the patterns of interaction and behavior which represent the organization because? a. Innovation requires organizations b. Innovation depends on serendipity c.
Innovation is an organizational activity
d. All of the above
17. In their study of factors that influence innovation success Panne (2003) four main groups of factors which were: a.
Firm related factors-Project related factors-Technology related factors-Market related factors
b.
Technology related factors-Project related factors-Product related factors-Market related factors
c.
Firm related factors-Technology related factors-Product related factors-Market related factors.
d.
Firm related factors-Project related factors-Product related factors-Market related factors
18. Which one of the following organizational characteristics has not been found to facilitate innovation? a. Long term investment in marketing b. Cross functional co-operation c.
Growth orientation
d. Acceptance of risks
19. The dilemma of innovation management suggests there is a fundamental tension between the: a. Need for research and development and the need for stability b. Need for marketing effort and the need for science and technology c.
Need for stability and the need for creativity
d. Need for creativity and the need for innovation
20. In Pearson's uncertainty map which of the following categories is most applicable to the development of Dyson's bagless vacuum cleaner? a. Exploratory research b. Applications engineering c.
Development engineering
d. Combining market opportunities with technical capabilities
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (d)
2.(d)
3.(a)
4.(c)
5.(a)
6. (a)
7.(d)
8.(a)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11. (d)
12.(d)
13.(c)
14.(b)
15.(d)
16. (c)
17.(d)
18.(a)
19.(c)
20.(c)
Chapter 8 Evolution of Management Thought 1. Frederick Taylor performed most of his work in................... a. grape vineyards in California b. steel companies in Pennsylvania c.
auto assembly plants near Detroit
d. cotton gins in Alabama 2. Before Taylor, which of the following approaches was used to establish guidelines for an individual’s work? a. scientific analysis b. rule-of-thumb method c.
process distillation
d. mathematical modeling
3. Frederick Taylor advocated which of the following management principles? a. Work and responsibility should be divided almost equally between managers and workers. b. Workers should perform all work, while management should maintain responsibility for the work performed. c.
Managers should perform more work that workers, because managers are generally more skilled.
d. Workers can be highly productive even if they are randomly selected for a job.
4. Frank and Lillian Gilbreth’s work began in the area of....................... a. laying bricks b. cutting lumber c.
installing rudimentary electrical wiring
d. assembly lines
5. Frank and Lillian Gilbreth were the first researchers to utilize motion pictures to the study of................. a. reactions of workers in group settings
b. hand-and-body motions c.
workers reactions to pay increases
d. groups of workers in tense situations where they are assigning each other tasks
6. Which of the following phrases is most associated with scientific management? a. management relations b. one best way c.
supply and demand
d. quality control
7. The primary issue that motivated Taylor to create a more scientific approach to management was...................... a. worker efficiency b. worker effectiveness c.
worker absenteeism and turnover
d. workplace safety
8. Probably the best-known example of Taylor’s scientific management was the ............ experiment. a. horseshoe b. pig iron c.
blue collar
d. fish tank
9. Based on his scientific management principles, Taylor suggested which of the following pay principles? a. monthly salary b. monthly salary with bonus c.
seniority pay
d. incentive pay
10. A “therblig” concerns what scientific management workplace issue?
a. optimum temperature for workplace efficiency b. basic hand motions c.
optimum speed for basic motions
d. weight/movement ratios 11. A system can best be defined as.................. a. a grouping of separate and independent parts b. a set of interrelated and interdependent parts c.
an ordering of distinct and unrelated parts
d. a set of connected but nonfunctional parts
12. Each of the following terms could be used to characterize systems except.............. a.
unified
b.
fragmented
c.
whole
d.
set
13. Which of the following types of systems does not interact with its environment? a. fluid b. diagrammatic c.
closed
d. resource-driven
14. Which of the following is considered a systems input? a. management activities b. financial results c.
operations methods
d. raw materials
15. In an open organizational system, products and services produced by the organization can be considered as which of the following? a. capital expenditures
b. transformation processes c.
outputs
d. inputs
16. Open organizations are those that.................... a. interact with their environments b. consist of interdependent parts c.
are influenced by their environments, but do not interact with them
d. operate independently of their environments
17. A company that sees its employees as the driving force behind the organization probably follows which managerial approach? a. workplace diversity b. organizational behavior c.
quantitative analysis
d. dtotal quality management
18. 60. Which of the following is most closely associated with the organizational behavior approach to management? a. Bureaucracy b. concern for employee motivation c.
scientific methodology
d. interdependent systems
19. 61. According to the textbook, which of the following early advocates of organizational behavior was concerned about deplorable working conditions? a. Robert Owens b. Hugo Munsterberg c.
Mary Parker Follett
d. Chester Barnard
20. Which of the following early advocates of organizational behavior created the field of industrial psychology, the scientific study of people at work? a. Robert Owens b. Hugo Munsterberg c.
Mary Parker Follett
d. Chester Barnard
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b)
2.(b)
3.(a)
4.(a)
5.(b)
6. (b)
7.(a)
8.(b)
9.(d)
10.(b)
11. (b)
12.(b)
13.(c)
14.(d)
15.(b)
16. (a)
17.(b)
18.(b)
19.(a)
20.(b)
Chapter-9: Foundations of Individual Behavior Self Assessment Questions 1. Which of the following is not one of the channels through which we reveal our inner states? a. posture b. eye contact c.
facial expressions
d. auditory acuity
2. While driving, some people will express their anger by displaying their hand with the middle finger extended. This gesture is considered to be a(n) ……….. a. postural display b. cognitive marker c.
cultural marker
d. emblem 3. The process that people go through to understand the causes behind others' behavior is known as: a. affection. b. cognition. c.
impression formation.
d. attribution. 4. Which one of the following is NOT one of the sources of information we use to infer the cause of someone's behavior, according to Kelley? a. correspondence inference b. consensus c.
consistency
d. distinctiveness
5. The tendency to explain others' actions as stemming from dispositional causes even in the presence of clear situational causes is called the: a. self-presentation bias. b. correspondence bias. c.
self-serving bias.
d. actor-observer effect.
6. Ralph is walking down the sidewalk and trips on a concrete slab. "They should make these slabs even," thinks Ralph. Lisa is walking down the same sidewalk and trips on the same slab, which Ralph sees. "Clumsy Lisa," thinks Ralph. This situation is an example of: a. self-serving bias. b. self-presentation bias. c.
actor-observer effect.
d. correspondence bias. 7. Lisa is going on a first date with an attractive male and puts on one of her favorite fragrances. Lisa is using a tactic of: a. other-enhancement. b. self-enhancement c.
actor-observer bias.
d. schema formation. 8. Flattery is the most commonly used tactic of: a. schema formation. b. self-enhancement. c.
self-presentation.
d. other-enhancement. 9. All of the following are nonverbal cues to deception EXCEPT: a. pupils that are not dilated. b. exaggerated facial expressions. c.
interchannel discrepancies.
d. micro expressions.
10. The tendency to attach less importance to one potential cause of some behavior when other potential causes are also present is called: a. augmenting. b. discounting. c.
a causal history of reason explanation.
d. regulatory focus theory.
11. An example of individuals who do NOT routinely engage in the self-serving bias are:
a. teachers. b. elderly persons. c.
religious leaders.
d. depressives.
12. If a minority truly experiences an act of discrimination and reports it to others, people are likely to: a. say nothing at all about the incident. b. encourage further acts of discrimination against this person. c.
think of this person as a complainer.
d. praise the brave actions of this person.
13. Asch believed that our overall impressions of a person were greatly affected by: a. the self-serving bias. b. central traits. c.
the negativity effect.
d. peripheral traits.
14. Mary treats her superiors at work exceptionally well, but she mistreats her subordinates. This illustrates the a. a. holier than thou effect. b. mixed aggression model. c.
slime effect.
d. sleazy worker technique.
15. An introvert who is engaged in cognitive busyness while interviewing for a certain job will tend to: a. be distracted from worrying about how others perceive them. b. excessively worry about self-presentation issues. c.
perform poorly during the interview.
d. remain unaffected by this cognitive task.
16. Perception alters the view of the world by a. diminishing irrelevant or redundant information. b. ignoring a large amount of potential sensory information. c.
failing to take into account regularities of matter and energy.
d. both a and b.
17. Sensory transduction is the process by which a. sensory stimuli are analyzed. b. nerve fibers conduct sensory information. c.
physical energy is converted to biochemical energy.
d. information from different sensory modalities are compared.
18. A stimulus is a. the physical energy that begins the perceptual process. b. the psychological correlate of physical energy. c.
the manner in which sensory nerve fibers communicate with one another.
d. another word for a perception.
19. Psychophysics is the scientific discipline that a. relates the activity of sensory nerve fibers to perception. b. characterizes the physical nature of sensory stimulation. c.
compares human perceivers to a computer-generated model.
d. relates a sensory stimulus to a perceptual event.
20. Materialism is the philosophical perspective that a. perception depends only on the nervous system. b. perception begins with physical material. c.
only your mind exists and all worldly objects are creations of your mind.
d. the world is exactly how it appears to be.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (d)
2.(d)
3.(d)
4.(a)
5.(b)
6. (c)
7.(b)
8.(d)
9.(a)
10.(b)
11. (d)
12.(c)
13.(b)
14.(c)
15.(a)
16. (b)
17.(d)
18.(c)
19.(a)
20.(d)
Chapter-10: Motivation in Organizations Self Assessment Questions 1. Needs and expectations at work are sometimes divided into two types: a. Extrinsic/intrinsic b. Social/spiritual c.
Effort/reward
d. External/internal 2. According to Mitchell, the purpose of motivational theories is to: a. Control behavior b. Organize behavior c.
Predict behavior
d. Change behavior 3. Douglas McGregor's view that suggests that employees will exercise self-direction and self-control when they are committed to the objectives of the work is called: a. Theory A b. Theory Y c.
Theory B
d. Theory Z 4. Which step in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory deals with achieving one's potential? a. Esteem b. Safety c.
Social
d. Self-actualization 5. Which of the following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor? a. Personal growth b. Responsibility c.
Promotion
d. Company policy 6. Who proposed that achievement, affiliation and power are three important needs that help explain motivation in workplace situations? a. McGregor b. McClelland
c.
Herzberg
d. Maslow 7. Company policy, administration, supervision, interpersonal relations, working conditions, and salary are characterized as: a. Motivating factors b. Growth factors c.
Hygiene factors
d. Esteem factors 8. An individual's perception of whether performing at a particular level will lead to attainment of a desired outcome is termed: a. Expectation b. Goal-setting c.
Relevance
d. Instrumentality 9. Expectancy theory is an example of a: a. Process Theory b. Hierarchical Theory c.
Needs Theory
d. Cognitive Evaluation Theory 10. Which of the following steps is important to improving expectancy? a. Create the belief that effort is related to performance. b. Ask employees what rewards they value. c.
Observe and recognize performance.
d. Deliver rewards as promised. 11. Management by objectives emphasizes participatively setting goals that are: a. General in nature. b. Easy to create and develop. c.
Approved by management.
d. Tangible, verifiable, and measurable. 12. An individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task is called: a. Self-importance b. Self-efficacy
c.
Self-actualization
d. Self-worth 13. The theory that an employee will compare his or her job inputs and outcomes relative to others is called: a. Equity Theory b. Performance Theory c.
Comparative Theory
d. Inputs-Outputs Theory 14. Allocating extrinsic rewards for behavior that has been previously intrinsically rewarded tends to decrease the overall level of motivation, and is called: a. Intrinsic Evaluation Theory b. Cognitive Evaluation Theory c.
Motivational Evaluation Theory
d. Extrinsic Evaluation Theory 15. Alfie Kohn suggests that for people to be motivated it is only necessary to provide the right : a. Incentives b. Rewards c.
Compensation
d. Environment 16. Theory X suggests that employees: a. Dislike work b. Like their manager c.
Dislike their manager
d. None of the above 17. What three words define motivation? a. Desire, persistence, fairness b. Ambition, direction, intensity c.
Persistence, fairness, ambition
d. Intensity, direction, persistence 18. The theory that individuals act depending upon their evaluation of whether their effort will lead to good performance, whether good performance will be followed by a reward, and whether that reward is attractive to them, is called:
a. Expectancy Theory b. Motivational Theory c.
Equity Theory
d. Empirical Theory 19. Which answer corresponds to a person's internal desire to do something, due to such things as interest, challenge and personal satisfaction? a. Theory Z b. Extrinsic motivators c.
Theory X
d. Intrinsic motivators 20. Equity theory of motivation focuses on: a. The fact that people are influenced by the expected results of their actions. b. People’s perception of how they should perform in a given situation at work c.
The motivational force involved in a person’s actions at work
d. People’s expectation of the different outcomes for a given action
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a)
2.(c)
3.(b)
4.(d)
5.(d)
6. (b)
7.(c)
8.(d)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11. (d)
12.(b)
13.(a)
14.(b)
15.(d)
16. (a)
17.(d)
18.(a)
19.(d)
20.(a)
